CompTIA A+ Practice Quiz 2026: Hardware, Networking, Troubleshooting, and Security

Updated on May 23, 2026. CompTIA A+ exam details verified against CompTIA's official exam objectives for 220-1101 (Core 1) and 220-1102 (Core 2).

CompTIA A+ Practice Quiz 2026: Hardware, Networking, Troubleshooting, and Security

CompTIA A+ requires passing two separate exams: Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102). Each exam allows up to 90 questions in 90 minutes. Each exam costs approximately $246. Performance-Based Questions (PBQs) appear at the start of each exam — not at the end — and most candidates report that PBQs are where they struggle, not the multiple-choice questions that follow.

This quiz covers Core 1 content: hardware, networking, mobile devices, virtualization, and hardware/network troubleshooting. The Core 1 domain weights are: Hardware (25%), Hardware and Network Troubleshooting (29%), Networking (20%), Virtualization and Cloud Computing (11%), Mobile Devices (15%).

For career context and preparation strategy, see our CompTIA Security+ preparation guide — the natural next credential after A+ for IT professionals moving toward security roles. For adaptive A+ practice, the SimpuTech AI tutor can build practice sets calibrated to your weak domains.

Performance-Based Question Scenarios

Question 1 — PBQ Scenario: Network Troubleshooting

Scenario: A user reports that their computer cannot connect to the internet or any network resources. They can still see their desktop and open local files. Using the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology, place the following steps in the correct order:

1. 1. Identify the problem (gather information from the user: what changed, when did it start?)
2. 2. Establish a theory of probable cause (is the NIC disabled? Is the cable unplugged? Is the router offline?)
3. 3. Test the theory — check Device Manager for NIC errors, ping 127.0.0.1 (loopback), ping the default gateway
4. 4. Establish a plan of action and implement the solution
5. 5. Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures
6. 6. Document findings, actions, and outcomes

Correct order: 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5 → 6. The CompTIA troubleshooting methodology is a fixed 6-step process. The most common exam error is placing "document findings" before verification, or testing the theory before establishing it. The order matters — the exam tests it directly.

Question 2 — PBQ Scenario: Cable Type Matching

Scenario: Match each cable type to its maximum rated speed:

• Cat5e → 1 Gbps (1000 Mbps)
• Cat6 → 10 Gbps (at up to 55 meters)
• Cat6A → 10 Gbps (at up to 100 meters)
• Multimode fiber → 10–100 Gbps (depending on standard and distance)

Key distinction: Cat6 supports 10 Gbps only up to 55 meters in practice; Cat6A supports 10 Gbps up to the full 100-meter Ethernet standard. For runs longer than 55 meters at 10 Gbps, Cat6A is required. This distinction appears frequently in PBQ and multiple-choice questions.

Question 3 — PBQ Scenario: Laser Printer Troubleshooting

Scenario: A laser printer is producing pages where printed text appears very faint and barely legible, even on newly printed documents. The print quality is uniformly faint across the entire page. Which component is the most likely cause, and why?

1. A) Fuser assembly — the toner is not being bonded to the paper
2. B) Toner cartridge — the toner supply is nearly depleted
3. C) Imaging drum — the drum is damaged and not transferring charge correctly
4. D) Transfer roller — the roller is not attracting toner to the paper

Answer: B. Uniformly faint printing across the entire page — especially if it started gradually and worsened — is the classic symptom of a depleted toner cartridge. The drum (C) would produce streaks or uneven patches. The fuser (A) failing would produce smearing or toner that rubs off easily. The transfer roller (D) failing would produce blank sections or complete non-printing. Faint-but-uniform printing = toner quantity issue.

Multiple Choice: Hardware

Question 4

What is the primary performance advantage of DDR5 RAM over DDR4 RAM?

1. A) DDR5 uses less power than DDR4 at equivalent speeds
2. B) DDR5 provides higher bandwidth and faster data transfer speeds than DDR4
3. C) DDR5 is backward compatible with DDR4 slots
4. D) DDR5 has larger individual module capacities than DDR4

Answer: B. DDR5 doubles the bandwidth of DDR4 (DDR4 peaks at ~51.2 GB/s; DDR5 starts at 38.4 GB/s at DDR5-4800 and scales to 89.6 GB/s at DDR5-5600 in current implementations). DDR5 also runs at lower voltage (1.1V vs. DDR4's 1.2V), so option A has some truth, but the primary exam-relevant difference is bandwidth. Option C is false — DDR5 and DDR4 use different physical slots (288-pin vs. 288-pin with a different notch position).

Question 5

Which expansion slot type is most commonly used to install a discrete GPU in a modern desktop computer?

1. A) PCIe x1
2. B) PCIe x16
3. C) M.2
4. D) PCI (legacy)

Answer: B. PCIe x16 provides the highest bandwidth of the PCIe slot types, making it the standard for discrete GPUs. PCIe x1 is used for sound cards, network cards, and USB expansion cards. M.2 is a slot type used for NVMe SSDs and Wi-Fi cards, not GPUs. Legacy PCI is found on older systems and does not support modern GPUs.

Question 6

What is the purpose of a UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply)?

1. A) To regulate voltage and prevent power surges from reaching connected devices
2. B) To provide battery backup power during a power outage, allowing time for a controlled system shutdown
3. C) To reduce electricity consumption of connected devices
4. D) To convert AC power to DC power for computer components

Answer: B. A UPS contains a battery that kicks in immediately during a power failure, providing enough runtime to save work and properly shut down systems. Option A describes a surge protector, which may be incorporated into some UPS units but is not the defining function. Option D describes a power supply unit (PSU), which is already inside the computer.

Multiple Choice: Networking

Question 7

What is the role of a DHCP server on a network?

1. A) It translates domain names (like google.com) to IP addresses
2. B) It automatically assigns IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and DNS server addresses to devices joining the network
3. C) It stores and forwards email between mail servers
4. D) It monitors network traffic for intrusions

Answer: B. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) automates IP address assignment. Without DHCP, every device on a network would require manual static IP configuration. Option A describes DNS. Option C describes SMTP/mail server functions. Option D describes an IDS/IPS.

Question 8

What is the default subnet mask for a Class C IP address?

1. A) 255.0.0.0
2. B) 255.255.0.0
3. C) 255.255.255.0
4. D) 255.255.255.128

Answer: C. Class A: 255.0.0.0 (/8). Class B: 255.255.0.0 (/16). Class C: 255.255.255.0 (/24). A /24 subnet provides 254 usable host addresses (2⁸ − 2 = 254, subtracting network and broadcast addresses). Option D (255.255.255.128) is a /25 subnet, which splits a Class C into two equal halves.

Question 9

The 802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5) wireless standard operates on which frequency band(s)?

1. A) 2.4 GHz only
2. B) 5 GHz only
3. C) Both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz
4. D) 6 GHz only

Answer: B. 802.11ac operates exclusively on the 5 GHz band. 802.11n (Wi-Fi 4) is the standard that supports both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz (dual-band). 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) added 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz; Wi-Fi 6E extended to 6 GHz. Option D (6 GHz) describes Wi-Fi 6E (802.11ax extended).

Multiple Choice: Virtualization and Cloud

Question 10

What is a hypervisor?

1. A) A security tool that monitors virtual machine traffic
2. B) Software that creates and manages virtual machines by abstracting hardware resources and allocating them to multiple VMs
3. C) A high-performance network switch used in data centers
4. D) A cloud-based backup service

Answer: B. A hypervisor (also called a Virtual Machine Monitor) enables virtualization by abstracting physical hardware and presenting virtual hardware environments to guest operating systems. Type 1 hypervisors (bare-metal) run directly on hardware (VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V). Type 2 hypervisors run on top of a host OS (VMware Workstation, VirtualBox).

Question 11

Which cloud service model provides users with a complete, ready-to-use software application delivered over the internet, requiring no installation or management of the underlying infrastructure?

1. A) IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
2. B) PaaS (Platform as a Service)
3. C) SaaS (Software as a Service)
4. D) DaaS (Desktop as a Service)

Answer: C. SaaS delivers fully managed applications via browser or thin client (Gmail, Microsoft 365, Salesforce). IaaS provides virtualized computing resources — VMs, storage, networking — where users manage the OS and above (AWS EC2, Azure VMs). PaaS provides a development platform where users manage applications and data but not the OS or infrastructure (Heroku, Google App Engine).

Multiple Choice: Mobile Devices

Question 12

What is Mobile Device Management (MDM)?

1. A) A method for increasing mobile device battery life through software optimization
2. B) A technology framework that allows organizations to remotely configure, monitor, manage, and secure employee mobile devices
3. C) A protocol for synchronizing mobile device contacts with a corporate email server
4. D) A hardware component that controls cellular radio frequency transmission

Answer: B. MDM solutions (Microsoft Intune, Jamf, VMware Workspace ONE) allow IT administrators to push security policies, deploy applications, enforce encryption, and remotely wipe devices if they are lost or stolen. MDM is the A+ exam's entry point into enterprise mobile security management.

Score bands

• 0–5 correct (review Core 1 domains before attempting exam): Focus on the Hardware and Networking domains first — they account for 45% of the Core 1 exam combined. Complete the CompTIA CertMaster Practice or Professor Messer's A+ course before scheduling.
• 6–10 correct (targeted study needed): Review your wrong answers and identify which domains produced the most errors. Hardware troubleshooting (29%) and Networking (20%) are the highest-weight domains — gaps there cost the most points.
• 11–15 correct (ready for Core 1 exam with PBQ practice): Your knowledge base is solid for multiple choice. Before scheduling the exam, complete at least 5–10 PBQ simulation exercises specifically — PBQ performance in the first 15–20 minutes sets the tone for the entire exam session.